Addition of lenalidomide to intensive treatment in younger and middle-aged adults with newly diagnosed AML: the HOVON-SAKK-132 trial.

Lenalidomide, an antineoplastic and immunomodulatory drug, has therapeutic activity in acute myeloid leukemia (AML), but definitive studies about its therapeutic utility have been lacking. In a phase 3 study, we compared 2 induction regimens in newly diagnosed patients age 18 to 65 years with AML: idarubicine-cytarabine (cycle 1) and daunorubicin and intermediate-dose cytarabine (cycle 2) without or with lenalidomide (15 mg orally on days 1-21). One final consolidation cycle of chemotherapy or autologous stem cell transplantation (auto-SCT) or allogeneic SCT (allo-SCT) was provided according to a prognostic risk and minimal residual disease (MRD)-adapted approach. Event-free survival (EFS; primary end point) and other clinical end points were assessed. A second random assignment in patients in complete response or in complete response with incomplete hematologic recovery after cycle 3 or auto-SCT involved 6 cycles of maintenance with lenalidomide (10 mg on days 1-21) or observation. In all, 392 patients were randomly assigned to the control group, and 388 patients were randomly assigned to lenalidomide induction. At a median follow-up of 41 months, the study revealed no differences in outcome between the treatments (EFS, 44% ± 2% standard error and overall survival, 54% ± 2% at 4 years for both arms) although in an exploratory post hoc analysis, a lenalidomide benefit was suggested in SRSF2-mutant AML. In relation to the previous Dutch-Belgian Hemato-Oncology Cooperative Group and Swiss Group for Clinical Cancer Research (HOVON-SAKK) studies that used a similar 3-cycle regimen but did not pursue an MRD-guided approach, these survival estimates compare markedly more favorably. MRD status after cycle 2 lost prognostic value in intermediate-risk AML in the risk-adjusted treatment context. Maintenance with lenalidomide showed no apparent effect on relapse probability in 88 patients randomly assigned for this part of the study.

Rituximab-CHOP With Early Rituximab Intensification for Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma: A Randomized Phase III Trial of the HOVON and the Nordic Lymphoma Group (HOVON-84).

PURPOSE: Immunochemotherapy with rituximab plus cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, and prednisone (R-CHOP) has become standard of care for patients with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL). This randomized trial assessed whether rituximab intensification during the first 4 cycles of R-CHOP could improve the outcome of these patients compared with standard R-CHOP. PATIENTS AND METHODS: A total of 574 patients with DLBCL age 18 to 80 years were randomly assigned to induction therapy with 6 or 8 cycles of R-CHOP-14 with (RR-CHOP-14) or without (R-CHOP-14) intensification of rituximab in the first 4 cycles. The primary end point was complete remission (CR) on induction. Analyses were performed by intention to treat. RESULTS: CR was achieved in 254 (89%) of 286 patients in the R-CHOP-14 arm and 249 (86%) of 288 patients in the RR-CHOP-14 arm (hazard ratio [HR], 0.82; 95% CI, 0.50 to 1.36; P = .44). After a median follow-up of 92 months (range, 1-131 months), 3-year failure-free survival was 74% (95% CI, 68% to 78%) in the R-CHOP-14 arm versus 69% (95% CI, 63% to 74%) in the RR-CHOP-14 arm (HR, 1.26; 95% CI, 0.98 to 1.61; P = .07). Progression-free survival at 3 years was 74% (95% CI, 69% to 79%) in the R-CHOP-14 arm versus 71% (95% CI, 66% to 76%) in the RR-CHOP-14 arm (HR, 1.20; 95% CI, 0.94 to 1.55; P = .15). Overall survival at 3 years was 81% (95% CI, 76% to 85%) in the R-CHOP-14 arm versus 76% (95% CI, 70% to 80%) in the RR-CHOP-14 arm (HR, 1.27; 95% CI, 0.97 to 1.67; P = .09). Patients between ages 66 and 80 years experienced significantly more toxicity during the first 4 cycles in the RR-CHOP-14 arm, especially neutropenia and infections. CONCLUSION: Early rituximab intensification during R-CHOP-14 does not improve outcome in patients with untreated DLBCL.

Two cases of Emergomyces pasteurianus infection in immunocompromised patients in the Netherlands.

We report two cases of Emergomyces pasteurianus infection in the Netherlands. Both patients were immunocompromised and had pulmonary symptoms. The first patient died due to a pulmonary infection with Es. pasteurianus, concomitant listeriosis, Pseudomonas aeruginosa sepsis and invasive pulmonary aspergillosis. The second patient had pulmonary and subcutaneous lesions, and recovered completely after treatment with posaconazole for 14 months. In both cases, diagnosis of Es. pasteurianus was made with internal transcribed spacer rRNA PCR and culture.

A Patient with Autoimmune Pancreatitis Type 1 with Previously Known Lymphadenopathy, Both in the Context of IgG4-related Disease.

BACKGROUND: Autoimmune pancreatitis (AIP) is an important clinical pathologic concept of IgG-4-related disease. AIP is a rare cause of chronic pancreatitis, characterized by a fibroinflammatory process by lymphoplasmacytic infiltrates, storiform fibrosis, obliterative phlebitis, and increased IgG4+ plasma cells, leading to dysfunction of the pancreas. Affected patients with AIP frequently have disease affecting other organs or sites with similar histologic changes, elevated IgG4+ plasma cell infiltrate, and good response to corticosteroid therapy. These diseases often are not limited to the pancreas and the pancreas may not be involved at all. CASE REPORT: We report a 62-year-old man with obstructive jaundice with pre-existent submandibular lymphadenopathy. Diagnosis of AIP was based on diagnostic criteria by the HISORT-criteria in combination with elevated IgG-4 serum levels. CT revealed a focal enlargement of the head of the pancreas, as well as mesenteric peripancreatic and mediastinal lymphadenopathy. He was treated with high-dose steroid in combination with azathioprine and showed good clinical response. CONCLUSIONS: We report a case with pre-existent submandibular lymphadenopathy and obstructive jaundice based on AIP type 1, both in the context of IgG4-related disease.

Paediatric nodal marginal zone B-cell lymphadenopathy of the neck: a Haemophilus influenzae-driven immune disorder?

Many hyperplasias and lymphomas of marginal zone B-cells are associated with infection. We identified six children and one adolescent with cervical lymphadenopathy showing prominent polyclonal nodal marginal zone hyperplasia (pNMZH) and four adolescents with monoclonal paediatric nodal marginal zone lymphoma (pNMZL). The clonality status was assessed using BIOMED-2-IG PCR analysis. Haemophilus influenzae was identified in all six cases of pNMZH that could be tested by direct culture (N = 3) or a very sensitive PCR for the H. influenzae gyrase gene in frozen materials (N = 5). H. influenzae was not detected in three pNMZLs and 28 non-specific reactive cervical lymph nodes of age-matched controls, except for a single control node that was obtained during oropharyngeal surgery for a cleft palate showing very low copy numbers of H. influenzae. pNMZH patients were younger than pNMZL patients (median age 12 versus 21 years). pNMZH showed a prominent nodular appearance with variable fibrosis without acute inflammation. Within the nodules, the expanded germinal centres and variably sized marginal zones were colonized by activated B-cells with weak expression of IgD and lack of CD10 and/or BCL6 expression. Some areas showed skewed light chain expression in plasma cells (4/5 cases lambda). In four cases tested, this was confirmed by flow cytometry for surface Ig (3/4 cases lambda). In contrast, pNMZL showed more extensive expansion of marginal zones by centrocytoid cells and often expression of BCL2 protein. Several H. influenzae strains are known to interact with the constant part of IgD on human B-cells, leading to their polyclonal proliferation and activation. We speculate that in vivo stimulation of IgD+ marginal zone B-cells by this bacterium may be implicated in this particular lymphadenopathy that should be distinguished from monoclonal pNMZL.

[Persistent polyclonal B-cell lymphocytosis]. / Persisterende polyklonale B-cellymfocytose.

BACKGROUND: Persistent polyclonal B-cell lymphocytosis (PPBL) is a benign condition associated with smoking. CASE REPORT: A 42-year-old woman was referred to an internist because of an abnormal blood test outcome identified during routine sampling. She had no symptoms; she had smoked for thirty pack years. Physical examination revealed no abnormalities. Laboratory analysis showed absolute lymphocytosis. A blood smear identified binuclear ('buttock') cells. The diagnosis of persistent polyclonal B-cell lymphocytosis (PPBL) was made, with nicotine abuse as the probable cause. The patient was advised to quit smoking. CONCLUSION: Polyclonal B-cell lymphocytosis is a benign condition that is characterised by: (a) polyclonal increase of B-lymphocytes in peripheral blood; (b) the presence of binuclear lymphocytes (buttock cells) in microscopic differentiation; (c) polyclonal increase in IgM. Recognition is important for the prevention of unnecessary diagnostic testing.

[Prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT): not always indicative of increased risk of bleeding]. / Een verlengde geactiveerde partiële tromboplastinetijd (APTT): niet altijd een verhoogde bloedingsneiging.

A 69-year-old man of Jewish descent with a second local relapse of rectal carcinoma was found to have a markedly prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Further evaluation revealed a homozygous factor XI deficiency. Despite various operations in the past he had never displayed any bleeding problems. Severe factor XI deficiency did not prevent venous thrombosis in this patient. The management of patients with prolonged aPTT is described and insight into the pathophysiology of factor XI deficiency is provided. The differential diagnosis in patients with a prolonged aPTT depends on their bleeding tendency. There is a large variability in bleeding tendency in patients with factor XI deficiency. Patients with factor XI deficiency and an increased bleeding tendency can be treated with antifibrinolytic agents prior to small interventions, such as tooth extraction, or with plasma prior to surgery.

[Fatal pulmonary tumour embolism as initial manifestation of an occult coecum tumour]. / Fatale pulmonale tumorembolie als eerste manifestatie van een occulte coecumtumor.

A 57-year-old woman without significant medical history presented. She had suffered from dyspnoea for the past 2 days and persistent spasmodic abdominal complaints for the past 2 weeks. Physical examination revealed tachypnoea, tachycardia and slight abdominal tenderness. Laboratory investigations revealed hypoxaemia and a strongly elevated D-dimer level. Thorax radiography revealed no abnormalities and no indications for pulmonary embolism were revealed by the CT. Abdominal ultrasound revealed multiple enlarged lymph nodes. Shortly after admission and despite resuscitation the patient died. Autopsy revealed massive pulmonary tumour embolism that originated from a primary lymphogenic metastasized coecum carcinoma. Pulmonary tumour embolism is characterised by tumour cells in the pulmonary vascular system, which exhibit no continuity with parenchymal metastases. Due to the less than specific findings revealed by history taking, physical examination and additional tests, the condition is rarely diagnosed ante mortem.

Cardiopulmonary imaging, functional and laboratory studies in sickle cell disease associated pulmonary hypertension.

Pulmonary hypertension (PHT) occurs in approximately 30% of adults with sickle cell disease (SCD) and is an independent risk factor for early death. In this study, we aimed to determine the value of general laboratory testing, plain chest radiography, electrocardiography (ECG), high-resolution computer tomography (HRCT) of the thorax, pulmonary function testing, and plasma N-terminal brain natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) and brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) in patients with SCD-related PHT. A cohort of 85 ambulatory sickle cell patients were prospectively screened for PHT with echocardiography (defined as a tricuspid regurgitation flow velocity of > or =2.5 m/sec). All patients were systematically evaluated by the aforementioned diagnostic tests comparing patients with and without PHT. The prevalence of PHT was 41% in HbSS/HbSbeta(0)-thalassemia patients and 13% in HbSC/HbSbeta(+)-thalassemia patients. No statistically significant differences were detected in ECG, chest radiography, HRCT, and pulmonary function testing between patients with and without PHT. The degree of anemia and renal dysfunction, but not the presence of PHT, were the most important determinants of plasma (NT-pro)BNP levels. The performed imaging and functional studies do not seem to be of value in identifying etiological conditions (such as airflow obstruction or parenchymal lung disease) nor do they offer clues to the presence of mild PHT in SCD.

Large and medium-sized pulmonary artery obstruction does not play a role of primary importance in the etiology of sickle-cell disease-associated pulmonary hypertension.

BACKGROUND: Pulmonary hypertension (PHT) occurs in approximately 30% of adult patients with sickle-cell disease (SCD) and is a risk factor for early death. The potential role of pulmonary artery obstruction, whether due to emboli or in situ thrombosis, in the etiology of SCD-related PHT is unknown. METHODS: Consecutive SCD patients were screened for PHT (defined as a tricuspid regurgitant jet flow velocity > or = 2.5 m/s) employing echocardiography and were evaluated for pulmonary artery obstruction with ventilation-perfusion (VQ) scintigraphy. RESULTS: Fifty-three HbSS, 6 HbSbeta(0)-thalassemia, 20 HbSC, and 6 HbSbeta(+)-thalassemia patients were included. The overall prevalence of PHT was 41% in HbSS/HbSbeta(0)-thalassemia patients and 13% in HbSC/HbSbeta(+)-thalassemia patients. High-probability VQ defects (Prospective Investigation of Pulmonary Embolism Diagnosis criteria) were detected in two patients, one of whom had PHT. In HbSS/HbSbeta(0)-thalassemia patients with PHT, 19 patients (86%), 2 patients (9%), and 1 patient (5%) had low-, intermediate-, or high-probability scan results as compared to 30 patients (97%), 1 patient (3%), and 0 patients (0%) in HbSS/HbSbeta(0)-thalassemia patients without PHT (p = 0.31). In HbSC/HbSbeta(+)-thalassemia patients with PHT, 3 patients (100%), 0 patients (0%), and 0 patients (0%) had low-, intermediate-, and a high-probability scan as compared to 19 patients (90%), 1 patient (5%), and 1 patient (5%) in HbSC/HbSbeta(+)-thalassemia patients without PHT (p = 0.86). There were no statistical differences in irregular distribution of the radiopharmaceutical or nonspecific signs associated with PHT between patients with and without PHT. CONCLUSIONS: Although small pulmonary artery obstruction cannot be excluded, large to medium-sized pulmonary artery obstruction is an unlikely primary causative factor in SCD-related PHT.

Associations among Epstein-Barr virus subtypes, human leukocyte antigen class I alleles, and the development of posttransplantation lymphoproliferative disorder in bone marrow transplant recipients.

The association between Epstein-Barr virus subtype, human leukocyte antigen class I alleles, and the development of posttransplantation lymphoproliferative disorder was examined in a group of 25 bone marrow transplant recipients. A highly statistically significant correlation was observed between the human leukocyte antigen B51 allele and development of posttransplantation lymphoproliferative disorder (P=.0016). This study provides, to our knowledge, the first evidence that the human leukocyte antigen B51 allele might predispose bone marrow transplant recipients to Epstein-Barr virus-associated posttransplantation lymphoproliferative disorder.

Diagnostic value of OCT3/4 for pre-invasive and invasive testicular germ cell tumours.

Human testicular germ cell tumours of adolescents and adults (TGCTs), the seminomatous and non-seminomatous germ cell tumours, show morphological and biological similarities to normal embryonic development, presumably determined by their supposed cell of origin, the primordial germ cell/gonocyte. Based on this knowledge, OCT3/4, also known as POU5F1, was recently defined as a diagnostic marker for these tumour types. In the adult testis, positive immunohistochemistry for OCT3/4 is an absolute indicator for the presence of the TGCT precursor carcinoma in situ/intratubular germ cell neoplasia undifferentiated (CIS/ITGCNU), seminoma, and/or embryonal carcinoma. Several studies have confirmed this observation, using the same polyclonal antibody. The present study demonstrates the usefulness of OCT3/4 immunohistochemistry in a diagnostic setting of a consecutively collected series of more than 200 testicular tumours and over 80 testicular biopsies. Moreover, it is shown that a monoclonal antibody directed against OCT3/4 is as informative as the polyclonal antibody, both in immunohistochemistry and in western blot analysis. The antibodies are robust and applicable with different methods of pretreatment and storage of tissue. This allows routine application of this diagnostic marker.

Impaired recovery of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)--specific CD8+ T lymphocytes after partially T-depleted allogeneic stem cell transplantation may identify patients at very high risk for progressive EBV reactivation and lymphoproliferative disease.

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)-specific cytotoxic T lymphocytes are considered pivotal to prevent lymphoproliferative disease (LPD) in allogeneic stem cell transplantation (SCT) recipients. We evaluated the recovery of EBV-specific CD8+ T cells after partially T-cell-depleted SCT and studied the interaction between EBV-specific CD8+ T cells, EBV reactivation, and EBV-LPD. EBV-specific CD8+ T cells were enumerated using 12 class I HLA tetramers presenting peptides derived from 7 EBV proteins. Blood samples were taken at regular intervals after SCT in 61 patients, and EBV DNA levels were assessed by real-time polymerase chain reaction. Forty-five patients showed EBV reactivation, including 25 with high-level reactivation (ie, more than 1000 genome equivalents [geq] per milliliter). Nine of these 25 patients progressed to EBV-LPD. CD8+ T cells specific for latent or lytic EBV epitopes repopulated the peripheral blood at largely similar rates. In most patients, EBV-specific CD8+ T-cell counts had returned to normal levels within 6 months after SCT. Concurrently, the incidence of EBV reactivations clearly decreased. Patients with insufficient EBV-specific CD8+ T-cell recovery were at high risk for EBV reactivation in the first 6 months after SCT. Failure to detect EBV-specific CD8+ T cells in patients with high-level reactivation was associated with the subsequent development of EBV-LPD (P =.048). Consequently, the earlier defined positive predictive value of approximately 40%, based on high-level EBV reactivation only, increased to 100% in patients without detectable EBV-specific CD8+ T cells. Thus, impaired recovery of EBV-specific CD8+ T cells in patients with high-level EBV reactivation may identify a subgroup at very high risk for EBV-LPD and supports that EBV-specific CD8+ T cells protect SCT recipients from progressive EBV reactivation and EBV-LPD.

Prevention of Epstein-Barr virus-lymphoproliferative disease by molecular monitoring and preemptive rituximab in high-risk patients after allogeneic stem cell transplantation.

Recipients of a partially T-cell-depleted (TCD) allogeneic stem cell transplantation (allo-SCT) developing reactivation of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) with quantified viral DNA levels exceeding 1000 genome equivalents/milliliter (geq/mL) are at high risk for EBV-lymphoproliferative disease (EBV-LPD). We studied whether preemptive therapy with rituximab prevents EBV-LPD, LPD-mortality, and abrogates viral reactivation in high-risk patients. We monitored 49 recipients of a TCD allo-SCT weekly for EBV reactivation by quantitative real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR). Preemptive therapy by a single infusion of rituximab was given to patients with viral reactivation more than or equal to 1000 geq/mL. Results were compared with an historical control group of patients retrospectively monitored for EBV reactivation at similar intervals. There were 17 prospectively monitored patients who showed EBV reactivation more than or equal to 1000 geq/mL and 15 received preemptive therapy. Median time to preemptive therapy was 113 days (range, 41-202 days) after SCT. There were 14 patients who showed complete response (CR) as characterized by prevention of EBV-LPD and complete clearance of EBV-DNA from plasma, which was achieved after a median number of 8 days (range, 1-46 days). One patient progressed to EBV-LPD despite preemptive therapy, but obtained CR after 2 infusions of rituximab and donor lymphocyte infusion. There were 2 patients who had already developed EBV-LPD prior to preemptive rituximab, but obtained CR following 2 rituximab infusions. Comparison of this prospectively followed series to our historical cohort with the same high-risk profile showed a reduction of EBV-LPD incidence (18% +/- 9% versus 49% +/- 11%, respectively) and a complete abrogation of LPD-mortality (0% versus 26% +/- 10%, respectively) (P =.04) at 6 months from EBV-DNA more than or equal to 1000 geq/mL. Frequent quantitative monitoring of EBV reactivation and preemptive therapy by rituximab improves outcome in patients at high risk of EBV-LPD. (Blood. 2002;99:4364-4369)